Sermon Outline By Brian A. Yeager

"That I might make thee know the certainty of the words of truth..." (Proverbs 22:21).

Anthrōpos | Sermon Outline By Brian A. Yeager

ἄνθρωπος
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I. Introduction: The title for this lesson is a Greek word that is pronounced “anthrōpos”.

A. Sometimes people take the Scriptures and they run to Hell by the false conclusions they draw from them (II Peter 3:15-18).

  1. In the first century there were “many” which had corrupted the word of God (II Corinthians 2:17).
  2. This does not mean they taught things not at all in the Scriptures, but rather perverted the Scriptures (Galatians 1:6-9).
B. Our best defense against false Scriptural reasoning is to use the Scriptures in context and in whole as a dictionary, commentary, etc. (John 5:18; 30-39).
  1. We cannot learn just by defining a term. Meaning is found in more than just a definition (Matthew 9:1-13).
  2. We have to take more than immediate context into consideration as well. Example: Where could you conclude if you only read Ephesians 2:5; 8-9 without understanding who it was written to (Ephesians 1:1) and what they had already done to become Christians (Acts 19:1-7)?
  3. As we approach this lesson, let us understand that when I am talking about an evangelist, I am talking about the vocation; office of a man as stated in the New Testament (Acts 21:8, Ephesians 4:11, and II Timothy 4:5).

II. Body: The Same Commit Thou To Faithful Men (II Timothy 2:1-2).

A. In II Timothy 2:2 the word translated “men” is what we are studying today. That Greek word [ἄνθρωπος] appears 559 times in the New Testament. Dictionaries say this word means: “…a human being, whether male or female” (Strong’s # 444). Some take this to authorize training men and women as evangelists. They do so from part of this definition while ignoring the whole definition which includes: “with reference to sex, a male”. Does it always mean “men and women”? Could it here? Let’s use the Scriptures as our dictionary.
  1. Can the word mean “men and women” in some Scriptures? Yes, (Matthew 4:19 and I Timothy 2:4; cf. Mark 16:15-16, Acts 5:14, and Acts 8:12).
  2. Does the world always mean “men and women”? No, (Matthew 8:5-9 [vs. 9], Matthew 9:9, Matthew 11:7-10, John 1:6, Acts 10:25-26, Acts 21:39, Galatians 5:3, etc.).
B. Reasoning this out as training women evangelists would contradict other Scriptures and that makes it all wrong (Matthew 22:41-46).
  1. An evangelist must teach with all authority (Titus 2:15). Can a woman do that (I Timothy 2:11-12)?
  2. What would a female evangelist be able to do when the congregation assembles for worship (I Corinthians 14:34-35) and how would that fit into II Timothy 4:2?
C. Other tests to consider…
  1. Jesus taught by example (I Peter 2:21 and I John 2:3-6), why didn’t He train up women to go and teach (Matthew 10:1-7)?
  2. Paul, who penned the verse of our study, also taught by being an example (I Corinthians 4:16, I Corinthians 11:1, and Philippians 4:9). Why didn’t he train up women to go and evangelize (Acts 15:40, Acts 16:1-5, II Corinthians 1:19, Colossians 4:7-8, and Titus 1:4-5)?
  3. Why, since the same word is used [vs. 26 of following reference], didn’t they send women with Paul and Barnabas (Acts 15:24-33)?
  4. Some of the work an evangelist often includes actions (i.e. Acts 9:29, I Timothy 4:11, and Titus 1:10-14) that are contrary to what a godly woman is supposed to be like (I Peter 3:1-4).

III. Conclusion: Defining “ἄνθρωπος” in II Timothy 2:2 to mean “men and women” is clearly false. Therefore, it is sinful to hold to it (I Thessalonians 5:21).

© 1999-2020 Brian A. Yeager