Studies In The Book Of Romans

(Romans 3:9-31)

 

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1. What did the Jews and Gentiles, of the past, all have in common from verses nine through eighteen?

(9) What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin; (10) As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: (11) There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.  (12) They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.  (13) Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips: (14) Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness: (15) Their feet are swift to shed blood: (16) Destruction and misery are in their ways: (17) And the way of peace have they not known: (18) There is no fear of God before their eyes” (Romans 3:9-18).

 

Š     They [Jew and Gentile Christians in Rome who HAD walked in the way of THEIR fathers] shared “none righteous”, “none that doeth good” (Psalms 14:1-7).  *More on this in verses 22-23.

o  Jesus displayed this point when He spoke to a man, that thought of Jesus as a teacher only not as deity, pointing out the God alone is good (Mark 10:18).

o  If you are a Christian, Jew or Gentile, then you needed saved from sin and cannot claim a righteousness of yourself (I John 1:8-10).

Š     Those in the past, Jew and Gentile, did not seek after God (Jeremiah 4:22 and I Corinthians 12:2).

o  We know that there were, in the first century, those with understanding (I John 5:20) and seekers of God (Acts 8:25-39).  Thus, this is not to be taken strictly in a literal sense, of that present time. 

Š     They were not better than each other (Luke 18:9-14; cf. Isaiah 65:5).

Š     They [again; Jew and Gentile of the past] all went “out of the way” (Isaiah 53:6 and Ephesians 2:1-3).

Š     They’ve been deceptive with their tongues (Psalms 5:5-9).

Š     Their feet [sinners whether they be Jew or Gentile] were swift to shed blood (Proverbs 1:10-19).

Š     Destruction and misery are in the way of both Jew and Gentile (Romans 2:9).

Š     They have not known the way of peace (Isaiah 57:21).

Š     There is no fear of God before their eyes (Psalms 36:1).

 

2. To whom did the Law speak? 

Those under the Law: “Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God” (Romans 3:19).

 

Š     The Law of Moses, at the time this epistle was written and now as well, is no longer in effect (Romans 7:1-6, Ephesians 2:11-17, Colossians 2:12-14, and Hebrews 9:15-17).

Š     Remember, the Law of Moses was for the Jews and they were bound to it (Leviticus 26:46 and Malachi 4:4).

Š     The law brought the guilt of sin and was put in place because man was not acting righteously (I Timothy 1:9-10).

 

3. Who could be justified by the deeds of the Law of Moses?

NO ONE: “Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin” (Romans 3:20).

 

Š     This did not mean one was not expected to be a doer of the Law (Deuteronomy 27:26, Romans 2:12-13, and Hebrews 10:28).

Š     The deeds of the law [of Moses], by themselves, do not and did not save (Galatians 3:10-13, Galatians 5:4, and Titus 3:5-7).

Š     It takes a law for sin to be possible (I John 3:4).

 

4. Did it take the Law of Moses to bring about the righteousness of God?

No, without the Law: “But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets” (Romans 3:21).

 

Š     Righteousness is/was not found through obedience to the Law (Philippians 3:9).

Š     The Law and prophets spoke of Christ and what He did bring (Luke 24:44 and John 5:46-47; cf. Deuteronomy 18:15-19, Isaiah 11:1-16, Jeremiah 31:31-34, and Daniel 2:31-45).

Š     As we’ll discuss in the next verse, Christ brought true, full righteousness.

 

5. Was there a difference in the Jews or Gentiles who were justified by the grace of God through Jesus Christ?

No, both had sinned and both needed God’s grace through Christ: “(22) Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: (23) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; (24) Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus” (Romans 3:22-24).

 

Š     Christ brought righteousness (Romans 5:17-21, Romans 10:4, and Philippians 1:11).

Š     If the Law of Moses brought righteousness, Christ died in vain (Galatians 2:21).

Š     Again (Romans 3:9), there is no difference between Jew and Gentile (Romans 10:12). Both had sinned (Romans 11:25-32 and Galatians 3:22).

Š     Grace brought redemption through Christ for both Jew and Gentile (Acts 15:7-11).

Š     All of this ties to Abraham (Genesis 22:16 and Romans 4:16).

Š     Justification is not without works (James 2:14-26), though not works of the Law (Galatians 2:16-17).

Š     This is NOT teaching everyone sins (Romans 6:1-2, Hebrews 4:14-16, and I John 3:1-10).

 

6. Does the blood of Christ have anything to do with the remission of sins?

Yes: “(25) Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God” (Romans 3:25).

 

Š     Without the blood of Christ, there’d be no true remission of sins (Hebrews 10:1-18; cf. Matthew 26:28).

Š     The forbearance of God leads to repentance (Romans 2:4).

 

7. Whether Jew or Gentile, could anyone boast of obtaining salvation through his or her own works?

No (verse 21 covered part of this too): “(26) To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.  (27) Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.  (28) Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law” (Romans 3:26-28).

 

Š     The Lord is the justifier (Isaiah 45:25).

Š     Again, as noted in verse 20, just doing the deeds of the Law of Moses did not make one righteous (Acts 13:38-39).

Š     One cannot boast of his or her righteous deeds when you realize that, without God’s part, no one could be just (Ephesians 2:5-10).

 

8. Is God only the God of the Jews?

No: “(29) Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also: (30) Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith” (Romans 3:29-30).

 

Š     Mark 16:15-16, Romans 1:16, Romans 9:24, and Galatians 3:26-29.

Š     Faith in and through Christ, not the Law of Moses, is the point (Galatians 2:16).

 

9. Did/does faith in Christ make the Law void?

Establish it: “Do we then make void [entirely useless; Strong’s #2673] the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law” (Romans 3:31).

 

Š     Jesus fulfilled the Law (Matthew 5:17).

Š     Salvation for us is the fulfillment of the Law, not the voiding of it (Romans 8:1-4).

Š     If the Law was sufficient to save, faith in Christ would be void (Romans 4:14).

Š     The Law had a purpose in bringing about Christ (Galatians 3:11-25).

Š     To this day, the Law of Moses is not entirely useless (Romans 15:4 and I Corinthians 10:1-12).

 

 

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